CCNA Discovery 3 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.

Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
• A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.

2.

A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

3. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

4. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

5. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
• after they have been idle for a certain period of time

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

7. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

10. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Reboot the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

11. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
• routers
• switches
• VLANs
• hubs

12. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
• discards data frames received from the attached segment
• receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

13. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

14. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

15. What is the purpose of VTP?
• maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

16. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

17. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
• Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
• Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will not receive the update.

19 Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
• portfast
• rapid spanning tree

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and an Enterprise network

2. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commandsenable Telnet access to the router?
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line con 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork
Router(config)# enable password cisco
• Router(config)# line aux 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

3. Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
• maintenance time periods
• intrusion monitoring records
• offsite data storage procedures
• alternate IT processing locations*
• problem resolution escalation steps

4. Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• Telnet password
• hostname
• console password
• subnet mask
• enable secret password

5. Which two devices protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the enterprise edge ?(Choose two.)
• demarc
• IP security (IPSec)
• Data Service Unit (DSU)
• intrusion prevention system (IPS)
• intrusion detection system (IDS)

6. Which three steps must be performed to remove all VLAN information from a switch but retain therest of the configuration? (Choose three.)
• Remove all VLAN associations from the interfaces.
• Remove the 802.1q encapsulation from the interfac
• Issue the command copy start run.
• Issue the command delete flash:vlan.dat.
• Issue the command erase start.
• Reload the switch.

7. What is the demarcation?
• physical point where the ISP responsibilty ends and the customer responsibilty begins
• physical location where all server farm connections meet before being distributed into the Core
• point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable
• point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer devices

8. Which device is responsible for moving packets between multiple network segments?
• router
• switch
• CSU/DSU
• IDS device

10. What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?
• Cisco IOS filename
• configured routing protocol
• status of each interface
• IP addresses of all interfaces

11. Which two situations require a network administrator to use out-of-band management to change arouter configuration? (Choose two.)
• Network links to the router are down.
• No Telnet password has been configured on the router.
• The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.
• The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses.
• Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to routers.

12. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network devices fromtheir homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without increasing vulnerability to externalattacks? (Choose two.)
• Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home computer.
• Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network.
• Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network.
• Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to access management portson network devices.
• Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow external access.

13. A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a catastrophicdisaster prevents a company from performing daily business routines. Which portion of the networkdocumentation is the administrator defining?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• network solvency plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan

14. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two optionscould be implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such an attack in the future?(Choose two.)
• install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge
• reset all user passwords every 30 days
• filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol
• deny external workers VPN access to internal resources
• ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc

15. A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades do not affectbusiness operations. What will the network manager create for this purpose?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan

16. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical datThey are worried that ifsomething happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable information. Which type of plan isneeded for this company to help minimize loss in the event of a server crash?
• business security
• business continuity
• network maintenance
• service level agreement

17. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of companypersonnel, where can a network administrator look?
• Business Continuity Plan
• Business Security Plan
• Network Maintenance Plan
• Service Level Agreement

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about port Fa5/1?
• When a violation is detected, the port will log the information to a syslog server.
• When a violation is detected, the port will go into err-disable mod
• There have been 11 security violations since the last reloa
• The port is currently in the shutdown state.

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What can be found at the enterprise edge?
• Internet, VPN, and WAN modules
• Internet, PSTN, and WAN services
• server farms and network management
• campus infrastructure, including access layer devices

2. In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be located to detect
• and prevent services from accessing hosts?
• Enterprise Campus
• Edge Distribution
• Enterprise Edge
• Service Provider Edge

3. A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-business strategies of several firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group of clients in cities throughout the world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)
• VoIP
• VPN
• HTTP
• Telnet
• email

4. Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in an enterprise LAN that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.)
• providing failover capability
• installing redundant power supplies
• purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP
• implementing broadcast containment with VLANs
• installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput

5. Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the hierarchical design model?
• connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures
• using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers
• printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer
• placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country
• responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department

6. How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?
• It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet.
• It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices.
• It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two Internet endpoints.
• It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.****

7. A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the company. The transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure. Which protocol enables this to happen securely?
• HTTP
• SSH
• Telnet
• FTP

8. What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?
• high-quality, live-video presentations
• real-time voice communications over the Internet
• ability to share desktop applications simultaneously
• secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet

9. Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal servers?
• enterprise campus
• enterprise edge
• service provider edge
• building distribution

10. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
• remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach
• divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the concept of Core, Distribution, and Access Layers
• provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single
• component located in the access layer
• reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer

11. Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet access for remote workers? (Choose two.)
• VPN
• NAT
• user authentication
• client firewall software
• packet sniffing

12. Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an enterprise extranet?
• An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise extranet is designed to interconnect remote branch offices.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an enterprise extranet is designed to give access to external business partners.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide remote access to the enterprise network for teleworkers.

13. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• reduces the effect of Ethernet collisions
• reduces the impact of a key device or service failure
• reduces the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• reduces the impact of blocking broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

14. What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?
• performs routing and packet manipulation
• supplies redundancy and failover protection
• provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone
• serves as a network connection point for end-user devices

15. Which three functions are performed at the Distribution Layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• forwards traffic that is destined for other networks
• isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the Core Layer
• allows end users to access the local network
• provides a connection point for separate local networks
• transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites
• forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network

16. What is a benefit of having an extranet?
• It provides web-like access to company information for employees only.
• It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access connections only.
• It allows customers and partners to access company information by connecting to a public web server.
• It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information using controlled external connections.

17. What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)
• providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network
• providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network
• providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections
• providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network against malicious activity
• providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be allowed on the enterprise network

18. Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?
• TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be retransmitted.
• TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP.
• UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications.
• TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or acknowlegements.

19. The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and to the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?
• server farm
• enterprise edge
• enterprise campus
• service provider edge

20. Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead of TCP?(Choose two.)
• TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable.
• The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the streams of data.
• UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets.
• UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them.
• TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
• UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.

ccna 2.5 quiz

1.when configuring an ISR device using cisco SDM express wizard,what does setting the enable secret password field accomplish?

·         Ensures that authorization must be granted before accessing the internet

·         Blocks unauthorization users from accessing the LAN

·         Controls access to user executable mode

·         Controls access to privileged mode

2.when using cisco SDM,which WAN encapsulation type can be configured to require a username and password before a connection is granted?

·         High level data link control(HDLC)

·         Frame delay

·         Point to point protocol(PPP)

·         ATM PVC

3.what speed and duplex setting will result on a catalyst switch if it is set to auto negotiated to a 100Mbps port on a device that does not support auto negotiation?

·         10 half duplex

·         10 full duplex

·         100 half duplex

·         100 full duplex

4.which method can be used to configure a cisco catalyst switch before an IP address has been applied to the management interface?

·         Cisco IOS CLI using vlan 1

·         Cisco IOS CLI using console port

·         Cisco device manager using console port

·         Cisco software using vlan 1

5.what is a secure way that a client can connect to a device in band for the purpose of remote monitoring and administration?

·         telnet

·         HTTP

·         SSH

·         Console port

6.which type of wide area network(WAN) connection uses packet switched networks?

·         ISDN

·         Dial-up

·         Frame relay

·         Point to point

7.a small company with two office in the same building is requesting advice on WAN connections.which two questions would give a technician information to base a recommendation?(choose two)

·         What operation system is being used?

·         How much money has the customer budgeted to spend on the WAN connection?

·         What type of email client software is used by the employees?

·         Are the computers laptops or workstation?

·         Are the company web servers located in the building or at the ISP?

8.what is one fundamental difference between cisco’s CLI versus the SDM interface?

·         The SDM interface can be used with both in band out of band management

·         The CLI interface can be used with both in band and out of band management

·         The SDM interface requires a terminal emulation program on the PC

·         The CLI interface cannot be used over a telnet connection

9.which two statements describe the command history feature?(choose two)

·         It requires configuration of a history buffer before it can be used

·         It displays the most recently entered command strings in the current mode

·         It saves the output from the most recent show command

·         It displays the last five command that were entered in global configuration mode

·         It can be accessed by using the up and down arrows keys

10.which router mode displays a prompt of router#?

·         Global configuration mode

·         Privileged EXEC mode

·         Setup mode

·         User EXEC mode

11.in which two cases would out of band management of a router be required?(choose two)

·         When accessing a customer router ftom the ISP to monitor the normal operation

·         To access and configure the router before the ISP network is operational

·         To correct an error that has shutdown the network interfaces on a router

·         When the NAT translation configuration settings are incorrect

·         To back up the running configuration on the a tftp server

12.which two statements describe the result of entering the IP route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 command on a router?(choose two)

·         The router is not able to reach the 192.168.1.0 network

·         All packets received by the router are sent to the address 192.168.1.1

·         The remote network 192.168.1.0 can be reached using any interface

·         A default static route is added to the routing table

·         If a route to a destination network is not known,the packet is sent to 192.168.1.1

13.click and drag the command on the left to the correct category on the right

Used to change router modes or sub modes

Configure terminal

Interface fastethernet 0/0

enable

Used by administrator to verivy or monitor router operation

Show ip route

Show interfaces

ping

Affect the operation of the network

Ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0

No shutdown

14.what is the purpose of assigning an IP address to the interface VLAN1 on the cisco switch?

·         To be able to telnet to the switch to manage and configure it

·         To enable the switch to route between network

·         To create a new IP local network on the switch

·         To permits IP packets to be forwarded by the switch

ccna 2.4 quiz

1.what are three advantages of NAT?(choose three)

·         Conserves  registered public IP addresses

·         Reduces CPU usage on customer routers

·         Creates multiple public IP addresses

·         Hide private addressing from the internet

·         Permits LAN expansion without additional IP address

·         Improves the performance of border router

2.what is the default subnet mask for the address  172.31.18.222?

·         255.0.0.0

·         255.255.0.0

·         255.255.255.0

·         255.255.255.254

·         255.255.255.255

3.which three address are valid subnetwork addresses when 175.25.15.0/24 is further subnetted by borrowing  an additional for bits(choose three)

·         172.25.15.0

·         172.25.15.8

·         172.25.15.16

·         172.25.15.40

·         172.25.25.96

·         172.25.15.248

4.where are the high order binary number  that begin a class c address

·         000

·         001

·         010

·         110

5.host A is configure with IP address 192.168.75.34 and host B is configured with IP address 192.168.75.50.each are using  same subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 but are not able to ping each other.what networking devices are needed for these two host to communicate?

·         Switch

·         Hub

·         Server

·         Router

6.what two pieces can be derived from the IP address 192.168.42.135/24(choose two)

·         This is a class c address because the high order bits are 110

·         The  default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

·         The host portion is represented by the third and four octets

·         The seconds high order bits is a o so this is a class b address

·         The host address belong to the parent 192.168.0.0 network

·         This is one host address out of a possible 65,534 addresses

7.what subnet mask is indicated by the network address 172.16.4.8/18

·         255.255.0.0

·         255.255.192.0

·         255.255.240.0

·         255.255.248.0

·         255.255.255.0

8.click and drag the IP address on the left to the appropriate description on the right

223.14.6.95

127.0.0.0

191.82.0.0

224.100.35.76

61.0.0.255

255.255.0.0

124.255.255.255

9.the web server S2  needs to be accessible from the internet.which NAT option will provie a method for outside host to access S2 ?

·         Dynamic NAT  using a NAT pool

·         Static NAT

·         Port address translation

·         Dynamic NAT with overload

10.when a network administrator apllies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a class B address,for any given subnet,how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?

·         6

·         30

·         126

·         254

·         510

·         1022

11.an ISP customer has obtained a class C network address.the network technician needs to create five usable subnets,with each subnet capable of containing at least 20 host addresses.what is the appropriate subnet mask to use?

·         255.255.255.0

·         255.255.255.192

·         255.255.255.224

·         255.255.255.240

12.click and drag the characteristic on the left to the correct IP version on the right

IPv4

Is usually expressed in dotted  ecim al notation

Is in widespread use on the internet

Uses a 32-bit address

IPv6

Contains a 24-bit global previx

Is usually expressed in hexadecimal notation

Uses a 128-bit address